Review Question - QID 211141

A 67-year-old man presents with aseptic loosening of a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA). He has a history of a prior tibial plateau fracture which was treated with open reduction and internal fixation via an anterolateral approach and subsequently was converted to a primary posterior-stabilized TKA utilizing a standard midline, medial parapatellar approach. He is scheduled for revision TKA and the more medial incision is used, leaving a small lateral skin bridge. He presents a few weeks later with wound necrosis and after multiple rounds of debridement and negative pressure wound therapy, he is left with the lateral defect seen in Figure A. Which of the following surgical options would best address his defect?