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Review Question - QID 211341

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QID 211341 (Type "211341" in App Search)
A 33-year-old female presents to your clinic with left forefoot pain. She has had difficulty wearing shoes over the last 5 years and now has developed pain over the medial aspect of the first metatarsal phalangeal (MTP) joint. On examination, she has tenderness over the medial 1st metatarsal head but no pain or hypermobility to the 1st tarsometatarsal (TMT) joint. Her foot AP radiograph is shown in Figure A. She is interested in surgical correction. Which of the following would be most appropriate for this patient?
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