Review Question - QID 211385

A 56-year-old female presents for evaluation of chronic left ankle pain. She has a history of an ankle fracture treated non-operatively 20 years prior and was doing well until 5 years ago when she developed ankle pain after long periods of ambulation. She has limited ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion on examination but full eversion and inversion. Her imaging is shown in Figures A through C. The patient is currently only interested in non-operative management. Which of the following should be recommended for potential symptomatic relief?