Review Question - QID 216874

A 39-year-old male landscaper presents with a primary complaint of right knee pain. He states the pain is located over the medial aspect of his knee only. The pain is worse with activity and has progressively worsened over the last 9 months. Knee radiographs demonstrate medial compartment arthritis without additional compartmental involvement. Full length lower extremity radiographs demonstrate 9º of varus knee alignment, which correlates with his clinical examination. He has previously failed other modes of nonoperative management including therapy, corticosteroid injections, and bracing. You recommend surgical intervention with high tibial osteotomy. Which of the following is true of this procedure?