Review Question - QID 218595

A 45-year-old male presents to your office with complaints of ankle pain and weakness after an injury he sustained overseas two years ago. He now has significant weakness with ankle plantarflexion and his ankle rests in slight dorsiflexion while prone with his knees flexed to 90°. His injury has never been formally treated and is now affecting his gait and daily activities. An MRI is ordered which demonstrates a chronic mid-substance Achilles tendon rupture with 3 cm of retraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?