Review Question - QID 219252

An 84-year-old female presents with right knee pain and inability to ambulate after falling down a short flight of stairs at home. She states she had a total knee replacement performed 20 years ago and had a single-stage revision because the implant “got loose” five years later. Since then, her knee has been doing well until this fall, and denies any antecedent pain. She is distally neurovascular intact and has significant bruising, however, without any open wounds. Her radiographs are demonstrated in Figure A, and the surgeon determines they are well-fixed implants. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive treatment?