Review Question - QID 4213

A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after a motor vehicle collision. He denies any subjective weakness in his arms or legs, and only complains of back pain. Examination reveals no palpable spinal step-offs, posterior spinal pain, and normal neurologic function in the lower extremities. Normal perineal sensation and normal rectal tone are present. A CT scan is performed and is shown in Figures A and B. An MRI is performed and shows no signal intensity in the posterior ligamentous complex on T2 weighted images. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment.