Review Question - QID 4581

A 60-year-old with a history of diet controlled diabetes presents with ongoing 6-8 months history of lateral sided ankle pain. On physical exam, he is painful to resisted eversion, resisted plantar flexion of the 1st metatarsal and has a positive Coleman block test. A representative coronal MRI sequence at the level of the cuboid is shown in Figure A. Intra-operatively, the peroneal tendon located directly posterior to the fibula is found to be normal. The second peroneal tendon is found to have limited excursion, with multiple tears and fibrous tissue. Which of the following treatment options is ideal for this patient?